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Free CCNA 200-301 Practice Exam & Test Questions

60 free CCNA 200-301 practice questions across all six exam domains, with an explanation for every answer and a score for each domain at the end. Choose v1.1, the exam until February 2, 2027, or v2.0, which replaces it on February 3. No sign-up required.

Question 1 of 20Network fundamentals

Score: 0

At which OSI layer does a traditional LAN switch primarily forward traffic?

All 60 CCNA practice questions with answers

Every question in the bank, grouped by exam domain. Open one to see the answer and the reasoning.

Network fundamentals

At which OSI layer does a traditional LAN switch primarily forward traffic?

Answer: Layer 2 (Data Link)

A switch forwards frames by destination MAC address, and MAC addresses belong to Layer 2, the Data Link layer. Layer 3 is the tempting pick, but forwarding by IP address is what a router, or a Layer 3 switch routing between subnets, does.

Which of these is a private IPv4 address (RFC 1918)?

Answer: 10.250.10.5

The private ranges are 10.0.0.0/8, 172.16.0.0/12 (172.16 to 172.31) and 192.168.0.0/16, and 10.250.10.5 falls inside 10.0.0.0/8. 172.34 and 172.40 are tempting but sit outside 172.16 to 172.31, and 192.168.300.1 is not a valid address because 300 exceeds 255.

How many usable host addresses are in a /27 subnet?

Answer: 30

A /27 leaves 32 minus 27 = 5 host bits, so 2^5 = 32 addresses, minus the network and broadcast addresses = 30 usable hosts. 32 is the tempting answer, but it counts those two reserved addresses.

How many usable host addresses does a /30 subnet provide?

Answer: 2

A /30 leaves 2 host bits, so 2^2 = 4 addresses, minus the network and broadcast addresses = 2 usable hosts, which is why /30 is the classic prefix for point-to-point router links. 4 is the block size, not the usable count.

What is the subnet mask for a /26 network?

Answer: 255.255.255.192

A /26 is 24 bits in the first three octets plus 2 in the fourth: 11000000 = 128 + 64 = 192, so the mask is 255.255.255.192 with a block size of 256 minus 192 = 64. 255.255.255.224 is a /27, one bit too many.

Which protocol resolves a known IPv4 address to its MAC address on a local network?

Answer: ARP

ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) maps a known IPv4 address to the MAC address needed to build the Layer 2 frame. DNS is the tempting pick, but it resolves names to IP addresses, not IP addresses to MAC addresses.

What is the broadcast address of the subnet that contains host 10.4.77.130/21?

Answer: 10.4.79.255

A /21 mask is 255.255.248.0, so the third octet moves in blocks of 256 minus 248 = 8, and 77 falls in the block 72 to 79. The subnet is 10.4.72.0 and its broadcast is 10.4.79.255; 10.4.77.255 is tempting but treats the mask as a /24.

Using VLSM on 192.168.10.0/24, you allocate the largest subnets first at the next free address: 100 hosts, then 50 hosts, then 20 hosts. Which subnet does the 20-host segment get?

Answer: 192.168.10.192/27

100 hosts need a /25 (2^7 minus 2 = 126 usable), so .0/25 takes .0 to .127, and 50 hosts need a /26 (2^6 minus 2 = 62), so .128/26 takes .128 to .191. 20 hosts need a /27 (2^5 minus 2 = 30) at the next free address, .192; a /28 is tempting but gives only 2^4 minus 2 = 14 usable hosts.

Which is a valid shortened form of 2001:0DB8:0000:0000:0A00:0000:0000:0001?

Answer: 2001:DB8:0:0:A00::1

You may drop leading zeros in each group (0DB8 to DB8, 0A00 to A00, never trailing zeros) and replace one run of all-zero groups with ::. 2001:DB8::A00::1 is tempting but uses :: twice, so nobody could tell how many zero groups each one hides.

A router builds a modified EUI-64 interface ID from MAC address 0050.3EAB.12CD. What is the result?

Answer: 0250:3EFF:FEAB:12CD

Split the MAC into 0050.3E and AB.12CD and insert FFFE between them to get 0050:3EFF:FEAB:12CD, then flip the seventh bit of the first byte: 00 is 00000000, which becomes 00000010 = 02. Skipping that bit flip gives 0050:3EFF:FEAB:12CD, the most common mistake.

A switch port facing a server shows a steadily rising late collision count in show interfaces, and file transfers are slow. What is the most likely cause?

Answer: A duplex mismatch, with this port running half duplex

Late collisions are logged by a half-duplex interface whose partner transmits in full duplex, the classic duplex mismatch; the full-duplex end usually logs CRC errors and runts instead. A speed mismatch is tempting, but it normally stops the link from coming up at all.

Which statement correctly compares UDP with TCP?200-301 v1.1 only

Answer: UDP has no handshake, sequencing or retransmission

UDP is connectionless, with an 8-byte header and no handshake, sequence numbers or retransmission, which suits voice, video and DNS queries. The three-way handshake (SYN, SYN-ACK, ACK) and acknowledged retransmission belong to TCP, whose header is at least 20 bytes.

Network access

What is the default VLAN on a Cisco Catalyst switch?

Answer: VLAN 1

Every switchport belongs to VLAN 1 out of the box, and VLAN 1 cannot be deleted, so best practice is to move user traffic and the trunk native VLAN to other VLANs. VLAN 1005 also cannot be deleted, but it is one of the reserved legacy VLANs 1002 to 1005, not the default.

What does a trunk port do?

Answer: Carries frames for many VLANs, using 802.1Q tags

A trunk carries several VLANs over one link and adds an 802.1Q tag so the far switch knows each frame's VLAN; only native VLAN frames cross untagged. Bundling links is EtherChannel, and a single-VLAN port facing an end device is an access port.

What is the main purpose of Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)?

Answer: To prevent Layer 2 loops in a switched network

STP blocks redundant ports (Rapid PVST+ calls the state discarding) so frames cannot loop and cause broadcast storms, while keeping the backup path ready if the active one fails. It does not load balance: for a given VLAN, a blocked link carries no user traffic at all.

On an 802.1Q trunk, how are frames in the native VLAN sent by default?

Answer: Untagged, so both ends must use the same native VLAN

802.1Q sends native VLAN frames untagged, and the receiving switch places any untagged frame it gets into its own native VLAN, which is why both ends must agree and CDP warns about a native VLAN mismatch. Tagging native frames is possible with the global command vlan dot1q tag native, but it is not the default.

An access port connects an IP phone, with a PC plugged into the phone, and data stays in VLAN 10. Which command adds voice VLAN 150 to the port?

Answer: switchport voice vlan 150

switchport voice vlan 150 tells the phone, through CDP or LLDP-MED, to tag its own traffic for VLAN 150 while the PC's untagged frames stay in access VLAN 10. switchport trunk native vlan 150 is tempting, but it sets the untagged VLAN on a trunk, and this is an access port.

Which pair of channel-group modes forms an LACP EtherChannel between two switches?

Answer: active on one end, passive on the other

LACP forms when at least one side is active, so active with passive (or active with active) works. passive with passive is tempting, but neither side starts negotiation, and desirable and auto are PAgP modes that cannot negotiate with LACP.

Four switches run Rapid PVST+ for VLAN 1. SW1: priority 32769, MAC 0001.1111.1111. SW2: priority 24577, MAC 00AA.2222.2222. SW3: priority 24577, MAC 0009.3333.3333. SW4: priority 28673, MAC 0005.4444.4444. Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Answer: SW3

The lowest bridge ID wins, comparing priority first and MAC address only to break a tie. SW2 and SW3 share the lowest priority, 24577, and SW3's MAC 0009.3333.3333 is lower than 00AA.2222.2222; SW1 is tempting with the lowest MAC overall, but its priority of 32769 loses before MACs are compared.

In a router-on-a-stick design, which command on subinterface G0/0.30 makes it send and receive frames for VLAN 30?

Answer: encapsulation dot1Q 30

encapsulation dot1Q 30 binds the router subinterface to VLAN 30 so it tags and accepts that VLAN's frames, and IOS requires it before you can give the subinterface an IP address. The switchport commands are tempting, but they configure switch ports, not router subinterfaces.

An access port has PortFast and BPDU guard enabled. Someone plugs in a small switch that sends BPDUs. What happens to the port?

Answer: It goes into the err-disabled state and stops forwarding

BPDU guard err-disables a port the moment it receives a BPDU, and the port stays down until someone runs shutdown and no shutdown on it or errdisable recovery is configured. Dropping PortFast and running normal spanning tree is tempting, but that is how a PortFast port behaves without BPDU guard.

Which feature, enabled directly on an interface, stops the port from sending BPDUs and makes it ignore any BPDUs it receives?200-301 v1.1 only

Answer: BPDU filter

Interface-level BPDU filter (spanning-tree bpdufilter enable) neither sends nor processes BPDUs, so a connected switch could create an undetected loop. BPDU guard is the tempting answer, but it err-disables the port when a BPDU arrives rather than ignoring it.

Lightweight APs at a branch join a WLC at head office across the WAN. Which AP mode lets them switch client traffic locally, so connected clients keep working if the WAN fails?200-301 v1.1 only

Answer: FlexConnect

FlexConnect APs can switch client data straight onto the branch VLAN and keep existing clients connected when they lose contact with the WLC. Local mode is the tempting default, but it tunnels all client traffic to the controller over CAPWAP, so a WAN outage cuts the clients off.

You are checking a multivendor network diagram against reality. Which command lists directly connected devices learned through the IEEE standard discovery protocol, with local and remote ports?

Answer: show lldp neighbors

show lldp neighbors lists each neighbour's device ID, the local interface, capabilities and the neighbour's port ID, learned through LLDP (IEEE 802.1AB), which many Cisco devices need enabled first with lldp run. show cdp neighbors gives similar output, but CDP is Cisco proprietary and misses most other vendors' gear.

IP connectivity

What is the default administrative distance of OSPF on a Cisco router?

Answer: 110

OSPF has a default administrative distance of 110. 90 is internal EIGRP and 120 is RIP; for reference, a static route is 1 and a directly connected route is 0.

OSPF is best described as which type of routing protocol?

Answer: Link state

OSPF is link state: every router floods LSAs, builds the same map of its area and runs Dijkstra's SPF algorithm over it. Distance vector protocols such as RIP only know what their neighbours report; BGP is path vector, and EIGRP is the one usually called advanced distance vector.

A routing table holds 10.0.0.0/8 via 192.0.2.1, 10.1.0.0/16 via 192.0.2.2, 10.1.1.0/24 via 192.0.2.3 and 0.0.0.0/0 via 192.0.2.4. Which next hop is used for a packet to 10.1.2.5?

Answer: 192.0.2.2

The router uses the longest matching prefix: 10.1.2.5 matches /0, /8 and /16, and /16 is the longest of those. 10.1.1.0/24 is tempting, but it only covers 10.1.1.0 to 10.1.1.255, and this packet's third octet is 2.

A router learns 192.168.50.0/24 from both OSPF and RIP, and also has a static route to the same prefix configured with administrative distance 115. Which route is installed?

Answer: The OSPF route

For an identical prefix the lowest administrative distance wins, and OSPF's 110 beats the static route's 115 and RIP's 120. The static route is tempting because statics normally use AD 1, but at 115 it is a floating static that installs only if OSPF loses the route.

R1 has an OSPF route to 10.10.0.0/16 and a static route to 10.10.10.0/24 with administrative distance 250. Which route forwards a packet to 10.10.10.9?

Answer: The static /24 route

Longest prefix match is applied first, and administrative distance only decides between routes to exactly the same prefix. The /24 is more specific than the /16, so the static route wins despite its AD of 250; the OSPF route is the tempting answer only if you compare AD first.

R1 learns its default route through OSPF. Which command adds a backup default route via 203.0.113.1 that installs only if the OSPF default disappears?

Answer: ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 120

A floating static needs a higher administrative distance than the route it backs up, and OSPF's is 110, so 120 keeps the static out of the table until the OSPF default is gone. AD 100 is tempting, but 100 is lower than 110, so that static would replace the OSPF route immediately.

Which command configures an IPv6 default route through next hop 2001:DB8:ACAD:1::1?

Answer: ipv6 route ::/0 2001:DB8:ACAD:1::1

::/0 is the IPv6 all-zeros prefix with no mask bits, the equivalent of 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0, and IPv6 static routes use ipv6 route (with ipv6 unicast-routing enabled). ::/128 is tempting, but it is a host route to the single unspecified address, not a default route.

An OSPF network statement must match every address in 10.20.30.64/27 and nothing outside it. Which statement does that?

Answer: network 10.20.30.64 0.0.0.31 area 0

Subtract the mask from 255.255.255.255: a /27 mask is 255.255.255.224, and 255 minus 224 = 31, so the wildcard 0.0.0.31 covers .64 to .95. 0.0.0.63 is tempting, but it is a /26 wildcard covering .64 to .127, which reaches outside the subnet.

Four routers on one Ethernet segment start OSPF at the same moment. R1: priority 1, router ID 1.1.1.1. R2: priority 0, router ID 9.9.9.9. R3: priority 1, router ID 3.3.3.3. R4: priority 1, router ID 2.2.2.2. Which router becomes the DR?

Answer: R3

The highest priority wins the DR election, the highest router ID breaks a tie, and priority 0 means a router can never be DR or BDR. R2 is tempting with the highest router ID but is ineligible, so R3 (3.3.3.3) becomes DR and R4 (2.2.2.2) becomes BDR.

R1 has no router-id command. Its up interfaces are Loopback0 10.1.1.1, Loopback1 172.16.0.1, G0/0 192.168.1.1 and G0/1 10.255.0.1. Which router ID does OSPF choose?

Answer: 172.16.0.1

Without a router-id command, OSPF takes the highest IPv4 address on an up loopback interface and only falls back to physical interfaces when no loopback exists. 192.168.1.1 is tempting as the highest address overall, but it is on a physical interface, so 172.16.0.1 wins.

R1 and R2 share a link in area 0, but show ip ospf neighbor lists nothing on either router. Which mismatch would cause this?

Answer: Hello interval 10 on R1, 5 on R2

Hello and dead intervals travel in every hello and must match, so R1 and R2 discard each other's hellos and never become neighbours. The process ID is the tempting answer, but it is only locally significant, so process 1 and process 20 form an adjacency normally.

OSPF uses the default reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps. Path A to a remote subnet crosses two 1 Gbps links, path B crosses one 100 Mbps link, and everything else is identical. Which path does OSPF prefer?

Answer: Path B: 1 against path A's 2

Cost is reference bandwidth divided by interface bandwidth with a minimum of 1: each 1 Gbps link is 100 / 1000 = 0.1, which counts as 1, so path A totals 1 + 1 = 2, while the 100 Mbps link is 100 / 100 = 1. Path A is tempting because its links are ten times faster, but the default reference cannot tell 1 Gbps from 100 Mbps, which is why auto-cost reference-bandwidth should be raised on every router.

show standby brief on R1 reports group 10, priority 110, state Active, standby router 10.1.1.3 and virtual IP 10.1.1.254. Which default gateway should hosts in that VLAN use?

Answer: 10.1.1.254, the virtual IP

Hosts point at the HSRP virtual IP, 10.1.1.254, which the active router answers for with a virtual MAC, so a failover to 10.1.1.3 needs no change on the hosts. R1's real interface address is tempting because R1 is active, but hosts using it would lose their gateway if R1 failed.

R1 already has ipv6 unicast-routing and an OSPFv3 process with a router ID. In traditional IOS syntax, which interface command enables OSPFv3 process 1 in area 0 on G0/0?200-301 v2.0 only

Answer: ipv6 ospf 1 area 0

OSPFv3 is enabled per interface with ipv6 ospf 1 area 0 and has no network statements; ipv6 router ospf 1 is the global command that creates the process. ip ospf 1 area 0 is tempting, but it enables OSPFv2 for the interface's IPv4 address, not OSPFv3.

In the routing table entry O 10.5.5.0/24 [110/3] via 10.1.1.2, 00:12:03, GigabitEthernet0/1, what does the 3 represent?

Answer: The OSPF cost to reach 10.5.5.0/24

The brackets read [administrative distance/metric], so 110 is OSPF's AD and 3 is the total OSPF cost to the destination. Hop count is the tempting reading, but hop count is RIP's metric, while OSPF's cost comes from interface bandwidth.

IP services

Which NAT method lets many internal hosts share one public IP using port numbers?

Answer: PAT (NAT overload)

PAT, configured with the overload keyword, maps many inside addresses to one public address and tells sessions apart by source port number. Dynamic NAT is tempting, but it needs one public address from its pool for each inside host translating at the same time.

What is the correct order of the DHCP lease process?

Answer: Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledge

DHCP follows DORA: the client broadcasts a Discover, a server answers with an Offer, the client sends a Request for the offer it chose, and the server confirms with an Acknowledge. Discover then Request is tempting, but a client can only request an address it has already been offered.

Which TCP port does HTTPS use by default?

Answer: 443

HTTPS uses TCP port 443, the number you match with eq 443 in an extended ACL. Port 80 is the tempting pick, but it is plain, unencrypted HTTP; 22 is SSH and 53 is DNS.

Which command makes a router an NTP client that syncs its clock from 192.0.2.10?200-301 v1.1 only

Answer: ntp server 192.0.2.10

ntp server 192.0.2.10 points the router at that time source, making the router its NTP client. ntp master is tempting, but it turns the router itself into an authoritative time source and takes a stratum number, not a server address.

A router has logging trap warnings configured. Which syslog severity levels does it send to the syslog server?

Answer: Levels 0 through 4

Warnings is severity 4, and a logging level sends that severity plus every more serious one, so 0 (emergencies) through 4 (warnings) reach the server. Levels 4 through 7 is the tempting reversal: lower numbers are more severe, so 5 to 7 are less important and are filtered out.

PCs in VLAN 20 use router subinterface G0/0.20 as their gateway. The DHCP server, 10.0.0.5, is on another subnet, and the PCs get no address. What fixes it?

Answer: ip helper-address 10.0.0.5 on subinterface G0/0.20

DHCP Discovers are broadcasts that a router will not forward, so the interface that hears them, G0/0.20, needs ip helper-address to relay them as unicasts to 10.0.0.5. Putting the helper on the server-side interface is the common mistake: that interface never receives the clients' broadcasts.

Security fundamentals

Which ACL entry permits HTTPS from hosts 192.168.16.0 through 192.168.31.255 to server 172.16.5.10, and nothing wider?

Answer: access-list 110 permit tcp 192.168.16.0 0.0.15.255 host 172.16.5.10 eq 443

16 through 31 is 16 values in the third octet, a /20 mask of 255.255.240.0, and 255 minus 240 = 15 gives the wildcard 0.0.15.255. 0.0.31.255 is tempting but spans 192.168.0.0 to 192.168.31.255, and the reversed entry treats the server as the source because extended ACLs list source before destination.

Standard ACL 10 contains only access-list 10 deny host 10.1.1.5, and it is applied inbound on G0/1. What happens to traffic arriving on G0/1?

Answer: Every IPv4 packet is dropped, from any source

Every ACL ends with an implicit deny any, so 10.1.1.5 hits the explicit deny and every other source hits the implicit one. Blocking only that host is the tempting reading, and it needs access-list 10 permit any added after the deny.

A port has port security with a maximum of 2 MAC addresses and violation mode restrict. A third MAC address starts sending frames. What happens?

Answer: The third MAC's frames are dropped and logged; the port stays up

Restrict drops frames from the unknown MAC, increments the violation counter and sends a syslog message or SNMP trap, while the two allowed hosts keep working. Dropping silently without counting is protect mode, and err-disabling the port is shutdown, the default mode.

After you enable DHCP snooping on an access switch, which ports should you configure as trusted?

Answer: Uplinks toward the legitimate DHCP server

With DHCP snooping on, every port starts untrusted and drops server messages such as DHCPOFFER and DHCPACK, which stops a rogue server on an access port. Trusting the user ports is tempting so clients are never blocked, but clients only send requests, and trust there would let a rogue server hand out a fake gateway.

A looped unmanaged switch at a desk floods broadcasts into an access port. Which feature drops broadcast traffic on that port once it passes a set percentage of the port's bandwidth?200-301 v2.0 only

Answer: Storm control

Storm control measures broadcast, multicast or unicast traffic against a threshold, such as storm-control broadcast level 10, and drops the excess or shuts the port down. Port security is tempting, but it limits which MAC addresses may use the port, not how much traffic they send.

A laptop on an access VLAN starts sending IPv6 Router Advertisements, and other hosts begin using it as their default gateway. Which feature blocks RAs on host-facing ports?200-301 v2.0 only

Answer: IPv6 RA guard

IPv6 RA guard inspects Router Advertisements and drops them on ports configured as host ports, so only real routers can announce themselves as gateways. DHCP snooping is tempting, but it polices DHCPv4 server messages, and IPv6 hosts learn their default gateway from RAs, not from DHCP.

Which statement correctly contrasts TACACS+ with RADIUS?

Answer: TACACS+ uses TCP and encrypts the entire packet body

TACACS+ runs over TCP port 49, encrypts the whole payload and keeps authentication, authorization and accounting separate, which suits per-command device administration. UDP with only the password encrypted is the tempting swap, but that describes RADIUS, which also combines authentication and authorization.

Which login method is true multifactor authentication?200-301 v1.1 only

Answer: A password plus a code from an authenticator app

MFA combines different factor types, here something you know (the password) and something you have (the phone running the authenticator app). A security question is tempting, but it is a second thing you know, so password plus question is still a single factor type.

In an IPsec site-to-site VPN, which protocol encrypts the payload to provide confidentiality?

Answer: ESP

ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload, IP protocol 50) encrypts the payload and can also authenticate it. AH is tempting because it is part of IPsec too, but it provides only integrity and authentication with no encryption, while IKE negotiates keys rather than protecting the data.

Automation and programmability

In network operations, what sets an agentic AI system apart from a chat assistant?200-301 v2.0 only

Answer: It plans steps toward a goal and calls tools, like show commands

An agentic AI breaks a goal into steps, calls tools such as device queries or ticketing systems, and adjusts to the results, usually with a human approving any change. Answering questions without acting describes a plain chat assistant, and a fixed threshold script is traditional automation with no reasoning involved.

You will paste router syslog lines into your company's approved generative AI assistant to triage them. Which prompt is the best choice?200-301 v2.0 only

Answer: As a network engineer, list the top three issues as a table of severity, interface and cause. Usernames and public IPs are masked.

The best prompt sets a fitting persona, gives a clear instruction and output format, and respects data classification by masking sensitive values before they leave your hands. Attaching the config is tempting for extra context, but passwords are restricted data and do not belong in any prompt, even to an approved tool.

In a controller-based network, which interface does the SDN controller use to program the switches and routers it manages?200-301 v1.1 only

Answer: The southbound API, toward the devices

Southbound APIs such as NETCONF, RESTCONF or OpenFlow carry instructions down from the controller to the network devices. The northbound API is the tempting pick, but it faces upward, letting applications and scripts ask the controller for data and changes.

A script must replace the settings of an existing interface resource through a REST API. Which HTTP verb maps to that CRUD update?200-301 v1.1 only

Answer: PUT

In CRUD terms POST creates, GET reads, PUT updates by replacing the resource (PATCH updates part of it) and DELETE deletes. POST is tempting because it also sends data, but it creates a new resource rather than replacing an existing one.

Which of these is valid JSON?200-301 v1.1 only

Answer: {"hostname": "SW1", "vlans": [10, 20]}

JSON needs double quotes around every key and string value and allows no comma after the last item. Single quotes are the tempting choice because Python accepts them, but JSON does not; the other two fail on a trailing comma and on unquoted keys.

Which statement describes how Ansible manages Cisco IOS devices?

Answer: A control node pushes YAML playbooks over SSH, with no agent needed

Ansible is agentless: a control node pushes tasks from YAML playbooks over SSH or an API, so IOS needs nothing extra installed. A pull-based agent is tempting, but that describes tools such as Puppet and Chef, and a state file is how Terraform tracks what it has built.

Frequently asked questions

Are these CCNA practice questions free?

Yes. All 60 questions are free, with no sign-up required. They are written by CISNET instructors in our own words, cover all six CCNA 200-301 domains, and every answer comes with an explanation of why it is right and why the tempting wrong option is wrong.

What topics do the CCNA practice questions cover?

The bank follows the six CCNA 200-301 v1.1 domains in proportion to their exam weight: network fundamentals including subnetting, network access, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation and programmability. Your results show a score for each domain so you know what to study next.

Do these questions cover CCNA v2.0?

Yes. Cisco replaces 200-301 v1.1 with v2.0 on February 3, 2027. Choose v2.0 in the exam version menu to drop the topics v2.0 removes and add the new ones, such as storm control, IPv6 RA guard and AI in network operations. Most questions apply to both versions.

Is this practice exam like the real CCNA 200-301 test?

The question style mirrors the multiple-choice portion of the CCNA 200-301 exam. The real test is timed and also includes drag-and-drop items and lab simulations, so use this practice test to check your knowledge, then add timed subnetting drills and hands-on labs before booking the exam.

How should I use practice questions to prepare for the CCNA?

Use them to find weak spots, then study those topics in depth and retake. Read every explanation, even for questions you get right, and pair the quiz with hands-on labs and subnetting drills. Consistent practice over several weeks beats cramming.

Ready to go beyond practice questions?

CISNET's live CCNA training takes you from fundamentals to exam-ready with guided labs and an instructor. See the full CCNA exam breakdown for format, cost, and topics.

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