Home/Tools/CCNP ENCOR Practice Questions
Free CCNP ENCOR Practice Test: 350-401 v1.2
60 free CCNP ENCOR practice questions for the 350-401 v1.2 exam, weighted like the real one across architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security, and automation and AI. Every answer has an explanation, and your results show a score for each domain. Wireless left ENCOR in March 2026, so none of these questions cover it. No sign-up required.
Question 1 of 20Architecture
Score: 0
A company occupies a single three-floor building with six access switches and expects little growth. It wants to cut cost by removing a layer of switches while keeping redundant uplinks from every access switch. Which design fits BEST?
The 350-401 ENCOR v1.2 exam at a glance
ENCOR 350-401 is the core exam for CCNP Enterprise and the qualifying exam for the CCIE Enterprise Infrastructure lab. Version 1.2 is the live version: a 120-minute exam that costs US$400 and mixes multiple-choice, drag-and-drop and performance-based questions. Cisco does not publish the number of questions or the passing score.
| Domain and what it covers | Exam weight | Questions here |
|---|---|---|
| Architecture2-tier, 3-tier, fabric and cloud design, high availability with FHRP and SSO, Catalyst SD-WAN, SD-Access, QoS | 15% | 9 |
| VirtualizationHypervisors, virtual machines and virtual switching, VRF, GRE and IPsec tunnels, LISP and VXLAN | 10% | 6 |
| Infrastructure802.1Q trunking, EtherChannel, RSTP and MST, EIGRP vs OSPF, OSPFv2/v3, eBGP, policy-based routing, NTP and PTP, NAT/PAT, HSRP and VRRP, multicast | 30% | 18 |
| Network AssuranceDebugs, ping, traceroute, SNMP and syslog, Flexible NetFlow, SPAN, IP SLA, Catalyst Center workflows including AI-powered ones, NETCONF and RESTCONF | 10% | 6 |
| SecurityLine, local and AAA access control, ACLs, CoPP, REST API security, threat defense, endpoint security, NGFW, TrustSec and MACsec | 20% | 12 |
| Automation and Artificial IntelligencePython, JSON, YANG, Catalyst Center and SD-WAN Manager APIs, REST response codes, EEM applets, agent vs agentless orchestration | 15% | 9 |
Weights from Cisco's 350-401 ENCOR v1.2 exam topics, checked October 27, 2026.
What changed in ENCOR v1.2
The biggest change is that ENCOR no longer covers wireless. On March 19, 2026 Cisco moved the wireless topics into 350-101 WLCOR, the core exam of the new CCNP Wireless certification, and replaced the old wireless concentrations with WLSD 300-110 and WLSI 300-120. The sixth ENCOR domain is now called automation and artificial intelligence, and the Catalyst Center topic now includes AI-powered workflows. If you studied from a v1.1 book, skip its wireless chapters and spend that time on infrastructure and security, which together make up half of the exam.
Where ENCOR fits in CCNP Enterprise
CCNP Enterprise takes two exams: ENCOR 350-401 plus one concentration exam of your choice. You can sit them in either order, and passing ENCOR alone earns the Cisco Certified Specialist, Enterprise Core credential. The six concentrations are:
| Concentration exam | Focus |
|---|---|
| 300-410 ENARSI | Advanced routing and services |
| 300-415 ENSDWI | Cisco SD-WAN |
| 300-420 ENSLD | Enterprise network design |
| 300-435 ENAUTO | Enterprise automation (also counts toward CCNP Automation) |
| 300-440 ENCC | Enterprise cloud connectivity |
| 300-445 ENNA | Enterprise network assurance |
If routing is your concentration, the ENCOR vs ENARSI comparison lays the two exams side by side.
All 60 CCNP ENCOR practice questions with answers
Every question in the bank, grouped by exam domain. Open one to see the answer and the reasoning.
Architecture
A company occupies a single three-floor building with six access switches and expects little growth. It wants to cut cost by removing a layer of switches while keeping redundant uplinks from every access switch. Which design fits BEST?
Answer: A two-tier collapsed core, where distribution also acts as core
A two-tier collapsed core merges the core and distribution layers into one redundant pair, which suits a single building where a separate core adds cost without adding much value. A three-tier design is the tempting textbook answer, but a dedicated core pays off in large campuses with many distribution blocks, not in a site with six access switches.
A data center team is building a new fabric for heavy east-west traffic between servers and chooses a spine-and-leaf design. Which statement describes how this design is cabled?
Answer: Every leaf uplinks to every spine, so any two leaves are one spine apart
In spine-and-leaf, each leaf has an uplink to every spine and servers attach to the leaves, so traffic between servers on different leaves always crosses exactly one spine. That predictable hop count, with equal-cost paths through every spine, is why the design suits east-west traffic; spines do not interconnect, so a spine mesh is the wrong picture.
A Catalyst 9400 has two supervisor engines. The team wants the standby supervisor to take over without resetting the line cards or losing Layer 2 state, and wants packets to keep flowing on the existing forwarding tables while routing protocols reconverge. Which combination provides this?
Answer: SSO together with NSF and NSF-aware neighbors
Stateful switchover keeps the standby supervisor fully initialized with synchronized state, and nonstop forwarding keeps traffic moving on the last known CEF entries while NSF-aware neighbors help the routing protocols restart gracefully. RPR is the tempting near miss, but its standby is only partly booted, so a switchover takes longer and resets the line cards; FHRPs and StackWise Virtual work between separate devices, not between supervisors in one chassis.
In a Cisco Catalyst SD-WAN deployment, which component uses OMP to distribute routes, TLOCs and data plane security keys to the WAN Edge routers, while never forwarding user traffic itself?
Answer: SD-WAN Controller
The SD-WAN Controller, formerly vSmart, is the control plane: it peers with every WAN Edge over OMP, reflects routes and TLOCs, distributes data plane keys and applies centralized policy. The Validator, formerly vBond, is tempting because it is also a controller, but its role is orchestration, authenticating devices, pointing them at the Controllers and helping with NAT traversal.
Two branch WAN Edge routers in Catalyst SD-WAN need to exchange user traffic directly. How is that traffic carried, and how is the quality of each path measured?
Answer: Over IPsec tunnels between TLOCs, with BFD probes on each tunnel
User traffic travels in IPsec tunnels built directly between TLOCs on the WAN Edge routers, and BFD runs inside every tunnel to detect failures and measure loss, latency and jitter for application-aware routing. DTLS is the tempting choice because WAN Edges do use DTLS or TLS, but only for control connections to the Controllers and Manager, which never carry user data.
Each branch has an MPLS circuit and a broadband internet circuit. The company wants both transports in active use and wants voice moved automatically to whichever transport currently meets a 150 ms latency and 1 percent loss target. Which Catalyst SD-WAN capability does this?
Answer: Application-aware routing with an SLA class
Application-aware routing compares live BFD measurements on each tunnel against an SLA class and steers matching traffic, such as voice, onto a transport that meets the loss, latency and jitter targets. TLOC extension is tempting because it involves transports, but it only lets one router use a circuit that terminates on its neighbor at the same site, and it makes no SLA decisions.
In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, an edge node needs to find out which edge node a destination endpoint sits behind. Which protocol does the control plane node use to hold and answer these endpoint-to-location mappings?
Answer: LISP
SD-Access uses LISP in the control plane: edge nodes register their endpoints (EIDs) with the control plane node, which acts as map server and map resolver and returns the RLOC of the edge node in front of each endpoint. VXLAN is the tempting answer because it is also part of SD-Access, but it is the data plane encapsulation that carries traffic once the location is known.
An SD-Access fabric must exchange routes with the existing WAN, the data center and the parts of the traditional campus that have not migrated yet. Which fabric role connects the fabric to these networks outside it?
Answer: Border node
Border nodes are the gateway between the fabric and everything outside it, handing off virtual networks to external routers, typically with VRF-lite and BGP, and a border can also use a Layer 2 handoff to join a fabric subnet to a VLAN on the traditional campus during migration. The fabric edge node is tempting because traffic enters the fabric there, but it connects endpoints such as user devices, phones and printers, not external networks.
An ISR 4000 router applies policy map WAN-OUT outbound on its WAN interface: class VOICE has priority percent 10, class CRITICAL has bandwidth remaining percent 40, and class-default has bandwidth remaining percent 60. How is bandwidth shared when the interface is congested?
Answer: VOICE is served first up to 10 percent, and the rest splits 40:60
priority percent 10 makes VOICE a strict-priority queue that is always served first and, during congestion, is limited to 10 percent of the interface rate, while bandwidth remaining percent divides whatever bandwidth is left after priority traffic. If VOICE uses its full 10 percent, CRITICAL gets 40 percent of the remaining 90, about 36 percent of the link; reading the remaining percentages as shares of the full link is the common mistake.
Virtualization
A server team installs VMware ESXi directly on bare-metal hosts in the data center, while developers run Oracle VirtualBox on their Windows laptops. How are these two hypervisors classified?
Answer: ESXi is type 1 and VirtualBox is type 2
A type 1, or bare-metal, hypervisor such as ESXi runs directly on the hardware, while a type 2, or hosted, hypervisor such as VirtualBox runs as an application on top of a host operating system. ESXi having its own management interface does not make it type 2; what matters is whether a general-purpose host OS sits underneath the hypervisor.
Interface G0/0/2 already has ip address 10.20.1.1 255.255.255.0. An engineer creates vrf definition GUEST with address-family ipv4, then enters vrf forwarding GUEST on G0/0/2. What happens to the interface?
Answer: It joins VRF GUEST, and its address is removed and must be re-entered
Assigning an interface to a VRF removes its existing IP addresses, and IOS XE prints a message saying the addresses were removed due to enabling the VRF, so the address must be configured again. Assuming the address carries over is the classic mistake that leaves the interface with no address and the VRF with no connected route.
Tunnel0 is a GRE tunnel between R1 and R2, and OSPF runs over the tunnel as well as over the physical WAN links. The tunnel keeps going down with the log message %TUN-5-RECURDOWN: Tunnel0 temporarily disabled due to recursive routing. What is the cause?
Answer: R1 learns its route to the tunnel destination through Tunnel0
Recursive routing occurs when the best route to the tunnel destination points out the tunnel itself, so the router would have to send the encapsulated packet back into the same tunnel; IOS detects the loop and disables the tunnel. The fix is to keep the tunnel endpoint networks out of the routing protocol that runs over the tunnel, or to make the physical path preferred; an MTU mismatch causes fragmentation problems, not this message.
Two sites must run OSPF between them across the internet, and all traffic between them must be encrypted. A policy-based IPsec tunnel using a crypto map is up, but OSPF neighbors never form across it. What is the BEST fix?
Answer: Run GRE over IPsec so OSPF multicast is carried and then encrypted
A crypto map protects only unicast traffic that matches its crypto ACL, so OSPF hellos sent to 224.0.0.5 are never carried. GRE wraps the multicast hellos and updates in unicast packets between the tunnel endpoints, and IPsec then encrypts those GRE packets; adding multicast addresses to the crypto ACL is tempting, but a crypto map still cannot carry multicast.
A LISP ingress tunnel router (ITR) receives a packet for a destination EID that is not in its map cache. What does the ITR do to learn where to send it?
Answer: It sends a Map-Request to the map resolver for the matching RLOC
On a map-cache miss, the ITR sends a Map-Request to the map resolver, which passes it through the mapping system to the map server and on to the ETR that registered the EID, and the answer comes back as a Map-Reply with the RLOC to encapsulate toward. Map-Register is the tempting distractor, but ETRs send it to register their own EIDs with the map server, not to look up a destination.
A data center must extend more than 10,000 tenant Layer 2 segments across a routed IP underlay. Which VXLAN property makes this possible?
Answer: A 24-bit VNI carried in a UDP-encapsulated header
VXLAN wraps the original Ethernet frame in a VXLAN header, UDP with destination port 4789, IP and an outer Ethernet header, and its 24-bit VXLAN network identifier allows about 16 million segments compared with 4,094 usable VLANs. Because the outer packet is ordinary routed IP, the underlay can be a Layer 3 fabric with equal-cost paths instead of a spanning tree domain.
Infrastructure
SW1 Gi1/0/24 and SW2 Gi1/0/24 are connected, and both ports are configured with switchport mode dynamic auto. The engineer expected a trunk. What does the link become?
Answer: An access link, because neither port starts trunk negotiation
Dynamic auto only responds to DTP requests and never sends them first, so two auto ports stay in access mode; at least one side must be dynamic desirable or trunk for a trunk to form. Assuming that two negotiable ports will agree on a trunk is the common trap, and the safer production practice is switchport mode trunk with switchport nonegotiate on both ends.
A trunk carries VLANs 10, 20 and 30. To add VLAN 40, an engineer enters switchport trunk allowed vlan 40 on the trunk. Moments later, users in VLANs 10, 20 and 30 on the far switch lose connectivity. Why?
Answer: The command replaced the allowed list, so only VLAN 40 now crosses
switchport trunk allowed vlan followed by a bare list overwrites the existing list, so the trunk now carries only VLAN 40; the correct command was switchport trunk allowed vlan add 40. An STP topology change is tempting because the outage followed a change, but under RSTP it would settle within seconds and would not single out the existing VLANs.
show etherchannel summary shows Po1(SU) with Gi1/0/1(P) and Gi1/0/2(P), but Gi1/0/3(s). The three ports were added to channel-group 1 at different times. What is the most likely cause?
Answer: Gi1/0/3 has trunk or VLAN settings that differ from the others
The lowercase s flag means suspended, which the switch applies when a member's configuration, such as its allowed VLAN list, native VLAN or trunking mode, does not match the port channel, and the log usually names the mismatched attribute. Hot standby is the tempting choice, but LACP marks those ports with H, while P means bundled and D means down.
Root guard is enabled on a distribution switch's downlink to an access switch. A technician then sets the access switch's bridge priority to 0, so it starts sending BPDUs that are superior to the current root's. What happens on the distribution switch port?
Answer: The port moves to root-inconsistent and stops forwarding
Root guard places a port that receives a superior BPDU into the root-inconsistent state, which blocks it, and the port recovers on its own once the superior BPDUs stop arriving. Err-disabled is the tempting answer, but that is BPDU guard's behavior, which needs a manual shutdown and no shutdown or errdisable recovery to come back.
Two switches run MST and are meant to be in one region. Both use region name CAMPUS and identical VLAN-to-instance mappings, but SW1 has revision 1 and SW2 has revision 2. What is the result?
Answer: They see each other as different regions, so the link is a boundary
Switches share an MST region only when the region name, revision number and VLAN-to-instance mapping all match exactly, so a different revision puts them in separate regions and the link between them becomes a region boundary. Treating the revision as a cosmetic label is the trap; across a boundary only the CIST interacts, so the per-instance topology the design intended is lost.
R1 has two paths to 10.50.0.0/16: one with metric 30,720 and one with metric 51,200 whose next hop is a feasible successor. The team wants both links to carry traffic in proportion to their metrics. Which protocol and feature allow this?
Answer: EIGRP, with variance 2 so the second path is also installed
EIGRP supports unequal-cost load balancing: variance 2 installs any feasible successor whose metric is less than twice the best metric, so the 51,200 path, below 61,440, joins the 30,720 path and traffic is shared in inverse proportion to the metrics. OSPF load balances only across equal-cost paths, so matching the costs would split traffic evenly rather than in proportion to the links.
The single ABR for area 20 is configured with area 20 stub no-summary, and the internal routers in area 20 have area 20 stub. Which routes from outside area 20 does an internal router in that area receive?
Answer: Only a default route injected by the ABR as a Type 3 LSA
area 20 stub no-summary makes area 20 totally stubby, so the ABR blocks Type 3 summaries and Type 5 externals and injects a single default route as a Type 3 LSA, while routers still learn every route inside area 20. A plain stub area is the tempting answer, but it still passes inter-area Type 3 routes along with the default and blocks only the externals.
Two OSPF routers on an Ethernet segment discover each other, but show ip ospf neighbor shows the adjacency cycling between EXSTART and EXCHANGE and never reaching FULL. Which mismatch is the most likely cause?
Answer: Interface MTU
OSPF compares the interface MTU carried in the database description packets exchanged during EXSTART and EXCHANGE, so a mismatch stalls the adjacency there; the fix is to align the MTUs, with ip ospf mtu-ignore as a workaround. Mismatched timers, area IDs or authentication are tempting, but those are checked in hello packets, so the routers would never discover each other at all.
An ABR connects area 0 and area 1. Area 1 contains the subnets 10.1.0.0/24 to 10.1.15.0/24, and the team wants a single summary advertised into area 0. Which command, under router ospf on the ABR, does this?
Answer: area 1 range 10.1.0.0 255.255.240.0
area range summarizes inter-area routes on an ABR, and the area number is the area that holds the component routes, so area 1 range 10.1.0.0 255.255.240.0 advertises 10.1.0.0 to 10.1.15.255 as one /20. summary-address is the tempting look-alike, but under OSPF it summarizes external routes on an ASBR, not inter-area routes on an ABR.
On an internal router in area 0, an engineer adds distribute-list prefix BLOCK-LAB in under router ospf 1 to hide 10.99.0.0/24. Afterward, which statement is true?
Answer: The route leaves this router's table, but the LSA stays and floods
Every router in an area must hold an identical link-state database, so an inbound distribute-list under OSPF only stops the matching route from being installed in the local routing table; the LSA stays in the database and is still flooded to neighbors. To keep a prefix out of an area, filter Type 3 LSAs on the ABR with area filter-list or use an area range with not-advertise.
A new router runs only IPv6, with no IPv4 address on any interface. After the engineer enters ospfv3 1 ipv6 area 0 on its interfaces, the process does not start and logs that it could not pick a router ID. What is the fix?
Answer: Set a 32-bit router ID manually under router ospfv3 1
OSPFv3 still uses a 32-bit router ID written in dotted-decimal form, and it can only choose one automatically from an IPv4 address on the router, so an IPv6-only router needs a command such as router-id 1.1.1.1 under router ospfv3 1. Adding an IPv6 loopback is the tempting fix, but a 128-bit IPv6 address cannot serve as the 32-bit router ID.
R1 learns 203.0.113.0/24 from two eBGP neighbors. Path A has AS_PATH 65010 65020 and local preference 100. Path B has AS_PATH 65030 65040 65050 65020 and local preference 200, set by an inbound route map. Weight is 0 on both and both next hops are reachable. Which path does R1 select?
Answer: Path B, because its local preference is higher
The Cisco best path algorithm checks weight first, then local preference, where higher wins, and only later AS_PATH length, so path B's local preference of 200 decides the result before AS_PATH is considered. AS_PATH length is the tempting answer because path A is clearly shorter, but it is compared only when weight and local preference tie.
show ip bgp summary on R1 lists eBGP neighbor 198.51.100.1 with the value 12 in the State/PfxRcd column and 3d04h in the Up/Down column. What does this tell the engineer?
Answer: The session is Established and 12 prefixes have been received
When State/PfxRcd shows a number instead of a state name, the session is Established and the number is how many prefixes have been received from that neighbor, while Up/Down shows how long the session has been in that state. Reading the number as sent prefixes is the trap; show ip bgp neighbors 198.51.100.1 advertised-routes is the command that lists what R1 sent.
A branch router must send traffic from guest subnet 10.30.0.0/24 out a backup ISP link, while all other traffic follows the routing table. The engineer builds route map GUEST-PBR that matches an ACL for the guest subnet and sets the backup ISP as the next hop. Where must the route map be applied?
Answer: With ip policy route-map on the LAN interface where guest traffic arrives
Policy-based routing acts on packets as they are received, so ip policy route-map goes on the ingress interface facing the guest subnet, and packets that do not match the route map are routed normally. ip local policy route-map is the tempting option, but it applies only to traffic the router itself generates, not to transit traffic from hosts.
show ntp status on R2 reports Clock is synchronized, stratum 4, reference is 10.0.0.1. What is the stratum of the device at 10.0.0.1?
Answer: Stratum 3
A device that synchronizes to a server takes the server's stratum plus one, so R2 at stratum 4 is synchronized to a stratum 3 source. Stratum 1 is the tempting guess for any upstream server, but it is reserved for devices attached directly to a reference clock such as GPS, and every hop away from that clock adds one.
A web server at 192.168.10.20 must be reachable from the internet on TCP 443 through public address 203.0.113.5. G0/0/1 is ip nat inside and G0/0/0 is ip nat outside. Which command creates the translation?
Answer: ip nat inside source static tcp 192.168.10.20 443 203.0.113.5 443
ip nat inside source static tcp lists the inside local address and port first and the inside global address and port second, so outside clients that connect to 203.0.113.5 on 443 are translated to the server. Reversing the two addresses is the tempting mistake, and the overload statement is dynamic PAT for outbound traffic, which never creates a fixed entry that outside hosts can reach.
For HSRP group 10, R1 has priority 110 and R2 has the default priority, and neither router has preempt configured. R1 was active, reloaded, and has now come back up. Which router is active for group 10?
Answer: R2, because R1 does not have preempt
HSRP does not preempt by default, so once R2 took over during the reload it stays active even though R1 returns with a higher priority; standby 10 preempt on R1 would let it reclaim the role. R1 is the tempting answer because higher priority wins elections, but without preemption an active router is never displaced, unlike VRRP, which preempts by default.
PIM sparse mode runs on every router and all of them agree on the RP. Multicast from source 10.10.1.50 to group 239.1.1.1 arrives at R3 on G0/0/2, but R3's unicast route to 10.10.1.50 points out G0/0/1. The stream never reaches receivers downstream of R3. Why?
Answer: The packets fail the RPF check, arriving on the wrong interface
PIM forwards a multicast packet only if it arrives on the interface the router would use to reach the source, the reverse path forwarding check, so packets on G0/0/2 are dropped while unicast routing points to G0/0/1. The fix is to align the multicast path with unicast routing or add a static mroute; MSDP is tempting, but it shares active source information between RPs and does not change the RPF interface.
Network Assurance
R1 is configured with logging host 10.5.5.5 and logging trap warnings. Which messages does R1 send to the syslog server?
Answer: Levels 0 to 4, warnings and more severe
Syslog severity runs from 0, emergencies, to 7, debugging, and setting a level sends that level plus every more severe one, so logging trap warnings sends levels 0 to 4. Levels 4 to 7 is the common mistake, because lower numbers are more severe and it is the less severe messages that get filtered out.
An engineer builds a Flexible NetFlow record with match ipv4 source address, match ipv4 destination address, match transport destination-port, collect counter bytes long and collect counter packets long. What role do the match lines play compared with the collect lines?
Answer: Match fields are key fields that define a flow; collect fields are tallied per flow
In a flow record, match statements are key fields: packets with the same values belong to the same flow, and any new combination creates a new flow entry. collect statements are non-key fields, such as byte and packet counters, gathered for each flow; treating match as a packet filter is the tempting mistake, because match lines decide how traffic is grouped into flows, not whether it is monitored.
A security team in the data center needs a copy of every packet on a switch port at a branch office, and the only path between the sites is a routed WAN. Which feature delivers the mirrored traffic to their analyzer?
Answer: ERSPAN
ERSPAN encapsulates the mirrored frames in GRE so they can be routed across a Layer 3 network to a remote destination. RSPAN is the tempting choice because it is also remote, but it carries the copies in a dedicated VLAN and needs a Layer 2 path end to end; Flexible NetFlow exports flow summaries, not the packets themselves.
ip sla 1 on R1 sends icmp-echo to 198.51.100.1 out the primary ISP link every 5 seconds, with ip sla schedule 1 life forever start-time now. R1 also has track 10 ip sla 1 reachability, ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 track 10, and ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.0.2.1 250. What happens when 198.51.100.1 stops replying?
Answer: The tracked route is withdrawn and the AD 250 route takes over
When the probe fails, track 10 goes down and the static default through 203.0.113.1 is removed from the routing table, so the floating static with administrative distance 250 through 192.0.2.1 is installed instead. Without the track keyword the primary route would stay in place as long as its exit interface was up, which is exactly the silent failure IP SLA tracking is meant to catch.
A network team is tired of alerts from fixed thresholds that fire at sites where the reported behavior is actually normal for that site. Which Cisco Catalyst Center capability uses machine learning to learn what is normal for the network and raises issues when behavior deviates from that baseline?
Answer: AI Network Analytics with dynamic baselines
AI Network Analytics, an AI-powered assurance workflow in Catalyst Center, uses machine learning to build dynamic baselines for each network and raises AI-driven issues when key indicators move outside the expected range. Template Hub and Software Image Management are traditional workflows that apply configuration and software consistently, which is valuable but does nothing to decide what counts as abnormal behavior.
An engineer enables netconf-yang on a Catalyst 9300 and wants to test it from a management host with an SSH-based NETCONF client. Which port does the client connect to by default?
Answer: TCP 830
IOS XE runs NETCONF over SSH on the IANA-assigned TCP port 830 by default, and the client and device exchange hello messages listing their capabilities before any RPCs are sent. TCP 22 is tempting because NETCONF uses SSH, but that port belongs to the normal CLI SSH service, and TCP 443 is where RESTCONF listens over HTTPS.
Security
An audit of a switch configuration finds the line username netops privilege 15 password 7 0822455D0A16. Why does the auditor flag it?
Answer: Type 7 is a reversible encoding that free tools decode instantly
Type 7, produced by service password-encryption, is a weak reversible cipher, so anyone who sees the configuration can recover the password in seconds; the fix is username netops privilege 15 algorithm-type scrypt secret, which stores a type 9 hash. An MD5 hash is the tempting answer, but that is type 5, a salted one-way hash, whereas type 7 can be reversed outright.
R1 has aaa new-model and aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ local. An admin types a wrong password while the TACACS+ server is up and reachable. What happens next?
Answer: R1 rejects the login without checking the local database
AAA moves to the next method in the list only when the current one returns an error, such as no response from the server; a FAIL reply from a reachable TACACS+ server ends the attempt and the login is denied. Trying the local database is the tempting answer, but that only happens when TACACS+ cannot be reached, which is what makes the local account a break-glass fallback.
The security team wants every command an administrator enters on routers and switches to be authorized individually and logged, with the entire AAA payload encrypted between device and server. Which protocol fits BEST?
Answer: TACACS+, because it separates the AAA functions over TCP 49
TACACS+ handles authentication, authorization and accounting as separate exchanges over TCP port 49 and encrypts the entire packet body, which makes per-command authorization and accounting practical for device administration. RADIUS is tempting because it is widely deployed, but it combines authentication and authorization in one exchange and encrypts only the password, which is why it is mainly used for network access such as 802.1X.
Only hosts in management subnet 10.99.0.0/24 may open SSH sessions to a switch, and traffic passing through the switch must not be affected. The engineer creates standard ACL MGMT-ONLY that permits 10.99.0.0 0.0.0.255. Where should it be applied?
Answer: access-class MGMT-ONLY in under line vty 0 15
access-class applied inbound on the vty lines filters who can open a remote session to the device itself and leaves traffic passing through the switch untouched. Applying the ACL with ip access-group on interfaces is the tempting answer, but it would filter every packet crossing those interfaces, including user traffic, and ip access-group is not a valid command on vty lines.
An IPv6 ACL applied inbound on a router's LAN interface permits a few application flows and ends with an explicit deny ipv6 any any log. Within minutes, hosts on that LAN lose all connectivity through the router, even for the flows the ACL permits. What is the most likely cause?
Answer: The explicit deny also blocks neighbor discovery the implicit rules allow
Every IPv6 ACL ends with implicit permits for neighbor solicitations and advertisements followed by an implicit deny, so an explicit deny ipv6 any any placed before them also blocks neighbor discovery, and hosts and router can no longer resolve each other's link-layer addresses. Adding permit icmp any any nd-ns and permit icmp any any nd-na above the explicit deny fixes it; statelessness is tempting, but return traffic leaves through this interface outbound, so an inbound ACL never sees it.
An ISR 4000 router's CPU spikes whenever someone floods it with SNMP requests and SSH connection attempts. The engineer builds a policy map that polices those protocols. Where must it be attached to protect the route processor?
Answer: Under control-plane, with service-policy input
Control plane policing attaches an MQC policy under control-plane configuration mode with service-policy input, so it polices every packet punted to the route processor no matter which interface it arrived on. Interface policies are the tempting choice, but they act on traffic in one direction on one interface and leave other paths to the CPU unprotected, and access-class only limits who may open vty sessions.
A developer's script calls a REST API with HTTP Basic authentication over plain HTTP, arguing that the credentials are encoded rather than sent as raw text. Why is this unsafe?
Answer: Basic authentication uses Base64, which anyone capturing it can decode
Basic authentication puts the username and password in the Authorization header encoded with Base64, which is reversible encoding, not encryption, so anyone who captures the traffic can read the credentials. REST APIs should run only over HTTPS and preferably use short-lived tokens; the claim that the server will reject plain HTTP is tempting, but many servers accept it, which is exactly the risk.
A sensor that receives a copy of traffic from a SPAN port alerts on an exploit attempt but cannot stop the attack. The team wants the next attempt blocked automatically. What change achieves this?
Answer: Place the sensor inline so it can drop matching packets as an IPS
A sensor fed by SPAN works as an IDS: it sees only copies, so it can raise an alert, but the original packets have already been forwarded. Placing it inline as an IPS, such as Snort in Cisco Secure Firewall, lets it drop malicious packets before they reach the target; better signatures are tempting, but faster detection still does not let an out-of-band sensor block anything.
Access switch ports use 802.1X with Cisco ISE, but the networked printers have no 802.1X supplicant and fail to authenticate. Which approach lets the switch authenticate the printers while other devices stay on 802.1X?
Answer: Configure MAB as a fallback so ISE authorizes the printers' MACs
MAC Authentication Bypass lets the switch, acting as the 802.1X authenticator, send the endpoint's MAC address to ISE as its identity when no EAP response arrives, so ISE can authorize known printers into the right VLAN or policy. Port security is tempting because it also relies on MAC addresses, but it is a local switch feature with no central policy, and it would take those ports out of the ISE design.
A company's stateful firewall allows outbound TCP 443, and staff now reach file-sharing and remote-access tools that all run over that port. Which next-generation firewall capability addresses this BEST?
Answer: Identifying applications by behavior and payload, not by port
A next-generation firewall adds application visibility and control, identifying the actual application inside a flow regardless of port so policy can allow or block it, alongside integrated IPS, URL filtering and user identity. Stateful inspection is the tempting answer, but every traditional stateful firewall already does that, and it sees only that the session uses port 443.
In a TrustSec deployment, ISE assigns an SGT to each user who authenticates at the access layer, but the access switches cannot tag frames inline in hardware. How can the enforcement point in the data center still learn which SGT belongs to each user's IP address?
Answer: SXP sends IP-to-SGT bindings from the access switches
The SGT Exchange Protocol runs over TCP and lets devices that cannot tag inline send their IP-to-SGT bindings to a peer that can enforce SGACLs or tag the traffic. MACsec is tempting because Cisco can carry the SGT inline on MACsec-protected links, but that still requires inline tagging hardware, which these switches lack.
Auditors require traffic between a sensitive workstation and its access switch to be encrypted at Layer 2 on the wire, and switch-to-switch uplinks to be protected hop by hop as well. Which technology meets this?
Answer: MACsec (IEEE 802.1AE)
MACsec encrypts and integrity-protects Ethernet frames between directly connected devices, host to switch or switch to switch, decrypting and re-encrypting at each hop, with keys usually negotiated by MKA. 802.1X with EAP-TLS is the tempting answer because it is often deployed alongside MACsec, but on its own it only authenticates the device and does not encrypt any frames.
Automation and Artificial Intelligence
A Python script holds data = {"device": "R1", "interfaces": [{"name": "Gi1", "enabled": True}, {"name": "Gi2", "enabled": False}]}. What does print(data["interfaces"][1]["name"]) output?
Answer: Gi2
data["interfaces"] returns the list of two dictionaries, and Python lists are indexed from zero, so index 1 is the second dictionary and its name key holds Gi2. Gi1 is the tempting answer for anyone counting from one, and a KeyError would occur only if one of the keys did not exist.
A script must send interface data as a JSON body: name Gi1/0/1, enabled set to true, and a list of two VLAN IDs, 10 and 20. Which body is valid JSON?
Answer: {"name": "Gi1/0/1", "enabled": true, "vlans": [10, 20]}
JSON booleans are lowercase true and false, keys and strings need double quotes, arrays use square brackets, and members are separated by commas. True with a capital T is the tempting choice because Python spells it that way, but it is not valid JSON; parentheses form a Python tuple, and a semicolon is not a valid separator.
A team automates by scraping show command output with regular expressions, and its scripts break whenever the output format changes. Why does moving to YANG-modeled data over NETCONF or RESTCONF help?
Answer: YANG defines a structured schema with typed, validated data
YANG is a data modeling language that defines the structure, data types and constraints of configuration and operational data, so the device returns predictable, machine-readable data encoded in XML or JSON instead of text formatted for people. Calling YANG a transport is the common confusion: NETCONF and RESTCONF carry the data, while YANG describes what that data looks like.
A script authenticates to Cisco Catalyst Center by sending a POST with Basic authentication to /dna/system/api/v1/auth/token and receives a token in the response. How should the script authenticate its later Intent API calls?
Answer: Send the token in an X-Auth-Token header on each request
Catalyst Center issues a token from the auth endpoint, and each later Intent API request carries it in the X-Auth-Token header until it expires and a new one is requested. Repeating Basic authentication is the tempting shortcut, but the Intent API expects the token, and keeping the password to the token request also limits how often credentials cross the network.
An engineer wants a script to pull the inventory of WAN Edge routers and controllers from Cisco Catalyst SD-WAN Manager after authenticating a session. Which request fits?
Answer: A GET to /dataservice/device on SD-WAN Manager
SD-WAN Manager exposes its REST API under the /dataservice path, and a GET to /dataservice/device returns the devices in the overlay with details such as system IP, reachability and software version. The /dna/intent path is the tempting look-alike, but it belongs to Catalyst Center, and reading an inventory is a GET, not a POST.
A script sends a RESTCONF POST to create Loopback100 on an IOS XE router, but Loopback100 already exists in the configuration. Which response should the script expect?
Answer: 409 Conflict
RESTCONF, defined in RFC 8040, treats POST as create-only, so if the target resource already exists the server must refuse the request with 409 Conflict. 201 Created is what a successful POST of a new resource returns; to change an existing loopback the script should use PATCH or PUT, which IOS XE typically answers with 204 No Content.
A script sends a POST to a Cisco Catalyst Center Intent API that starts a job, and the reply is 202 Accepted with a payload containing a taskId and a url. What should the script do next?
Answer: Poll the task endpoint with the taskId until the task reports completion
Many Catalyst Center Intent API operations run asynchronously, so 202 Accepted only means the request was received and a task was created; the script must query the task API with that taskId to learn whether the job finished and whether it succeeded. Treating 202 as success is the classic mistake, because the task can still fail after it is accepted, and an expired token would return 401 Unauthorized instead.
An EEM applet uses event syslog pattern "Interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1, changed state to down" and action 1.0 cli command "show running-config interface GigabitEthernet1/0/1 | append flash:gi101.txt". The applet triggers, but the file never appears. Which action should be added before action 1.0?
Answer: action 0.5 cli command "enable"
EEM runs CLI actions in a vty session that starts in user EXEC mode, so an applet that uses privileged commands such as show running-config must first run cli command "enable". terminal length 0 is tempting because it is common in scripts, but it only stops output paging and does not grant the privilege that show running-config needs.
A team is comparing orchestration tools for IOS XE devices on which it cannot install extra software. Which statement correctly describes the standard models of Puppet and Ansible?
Answer: Puppet agents pull their catalog from a server; Ansible pushes over SSH
Puppet's standard model is agent-based: each node runs an agent that periodically pulls its catalog from a Puppet server and enforces it, much as Chef does with its client. Ansible is agentless, so a control node pushes tasks from YAML playbooks over SSH or APIs such as NETCONF, which suits devices where nothing extra can be installed.
Frequently asked questions
Are these CCNP ENCOR practice questions free?
Yes. All 60 questions are free with no sign-up. Every question is original, written for CISNET against Cisco's published 350-401 ENCOR v1.2 exam topics, and every answer comes with an explanation of why it is right and why the most tempting wrong option is not. None of them are copied from the real exam.
Is wireless still on the CCNP ENCOR exam?
No. On March 19, 2026 Cisco moved the wireless topics out of ENCOR 350-401 into 350-101 WLCOR, the core exam of the new CCNP Wireless certification. ENCOR v1.2 covers architecture, virtualization, infrastructure, network assurance, security, and automation and artificial intelligence, so this question bank has no wireless questions either.
How many questions are on the ENCOR exam, and what is the passing score?
Cisco publishes neither. The 350-401 ENCOR exam lasts 120 minutes and mixes multiple-choice, drag-and-drop and performance-based questions, and Cisco does not release the number of items or the cut score. Prepare by domain weight instead: infrastructure is 30% of the exam and security 20%, so those two areas deserve half your study time.
How much does the CCNP ENCOR exam cost in Canada?
The 350-401 ENCOR exam costs US$400, which Cisco charges in US dollars or Cisco Learning Credits, so the Canadian price moves with the exchange rate. You book it through Pearson VUE, online or at a test centre. ENCOR is the core exam for CCNP Enterprise, so you also pay for one concentration exam to earn the certification.
Do I need to pass ENARSI after ENCOR?
Only if routing is the concentration you choose. CCNP Enterprise needs ENCOR 350-401 plus one concentration exam, and ENARSI 300-410 is one of six options alongside SD-WAN, design, automation, cloud connectivity and network assurance. Passing ENCOR on its own also earns the Cisco Certified Specialist, Enterprise Core credential.
How should I use these ENCOR practice questions?
Take a 20-question set, read every explanation, including for the questions you got right, and note your weakest domain in the results. Review that domain in the lab, not just in notes, then take a new random set. ENCOR rewards understanding why a protocol behaves the way it does, so treat each explanation as a pointer back to the configuration.
Sources and last verified
- Cisco: 350-401 ENCOR v1.2 exam topics
- Cisco: CCNP Enterprise certification and concentration exams
- Cisco: new wireless certifications (wireless leaves ENCOR, March 19, 2026)
Exam facts on this page were checked on Cisco's own pages on October 27, 2026.
Keep studying
Check format, fees and the study plan in the CCNP ENCOR certification guide, revisit path selection in BGP explained for CCNP and OSPF explained, or work out ACL and OSPF masks with the wildcard mask calculator. CISNET's live CCNP ENCOR course covers every domain with a CCIE instructor and hands-on labs.
Ready to Advance Your IT Career?
Get in touch to find the right certification path for your goals.
Get in Touch